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NEW QUESTION # 51
Availability can be protected through the use of:
- A. logging, digital signatures, and write protection.
- B. access controls. We permissions, and encryption.
- C. user awareness training and related end-user training.
- D. redundancy, backups, and business continuity management
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Availability can be protected through the use of redundancy, backups, and business continuity management.
This is because these measures help to ensure that systems, data, and services are accessible and functional at all times, even in the event of a disruption or disaster. The other options are not directly related to protecting availability, but rather focus on enhancing confidentiality (A), integrity C, or awareness (D).
NEW QUESTION # 52
in key protection/management, access should be aligned with which of the following?
- A. System limitation
- B. Role descriptions
- C. Least privilege
- D. Position responsibilities
Answer: C
Explanation:
In key protection/management, access should be aligned with the principle of least privilege. This means that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks and no more. This reduces the risk of unauthorized access, misuse, or compromise of sensitive data or systems.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following BEST helps IT administrators to ensure servers have no unnecessary features installed?
- A. Verification of user acceptance testing
- B. Comparison against information security policy
- C. Review of vulnerability scanning results
- D. Comparison against baseline standards
Answer: B
Explanation:
To ensure servers have no unnecessary features installed, IT administrators should compare the current server configuration against predefined baseline standards. These standards serve as a guide for the minimum necessary configurations and help identify any deviations, including unnecessary features or services that may introduce security vulnerabilities.
Reference = Baseline standards are a critical component of cybersecurity audits as they provide a clear framework for the secure configuration of systems. ISACA's resources emphasize the importance of using baseline standards as part of the cybersecurity audit process to manage and mitigate risks effectively123.
NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following BIST enables continuous identification and mitigation of security threats to an organization?
- A. Security operations center (SOC)
- B. demit/ and access management (1AM)
- C. Security training and awareness
- D. Security information and event management (SEM)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A security operations center (SOC) is a centralized unit that monitors, detects, analyzes, and responds to cyber threats and incidents in real time. A SOC enables continuous identification and mitigation of security threats to an organization by using various tools, processes, and expertise.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Within the NIST core cybersecurity framework, which function is associated with using organizational understanding to minimize risk to systems, assets, and data?
- A. Detect
- B. Identify
- C. Recover
- D. Respond
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Within the NIST core cybersecurity framework, the identify function is associated with using organizational understanding to minimize risk to systems, assets, and data. This is because the identify function helps organizations to develop an organizational understanding of their cybersecurity risk management posture, as well as the threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts that could affect their business objectives. The other functions are not directly related to using organizational understanding, but rather focus on detecting (A), recovering C, or responding (D) to cybersecurity events.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following devices is at GREATEST risk from activity monitoring and data retrieval?
- A. Mobile devices
- B. Desktop workstation
- C. Printing devices
- D. Cloud storage devices
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The device that is at GREATEST risk from activity monitoring and data retrieval is mobile devices. This is because mobile devices are devices that are portable, wireless, and connected to the Internet or other networks, such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, etc. Mobile devices are at greatest risk from activity monitoring and data retrieval, because they can be easily lost, stolen, or compromised by attackers who can access or extract the data stored or transmitted on the devices. Mobile devices can also be subject to activity monitoring and data retrieval by third-party applications or services that may collect or share the user's personal or sensitive information without their consent or knowledge. The other options are not devices that are at greatest risk from activity monitoring and data retrieval, but rather different types of devices that may have different levels of risk or protection from activity monitoring and data retrieval, such as cloud storage devices (B), desktop workstations C, or printing devices (D).
NEW QUESTION # 57
What is the FIRST activity associated with a successful cyber attack?
- A. Reconnaissance
- B. Exploitation
- C. Creating attack tools
- D. Maintaining a presence
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST activity associated with a successful cyber attack is reconnaissance. This is because reconnaissance is a phase of the cyber attack lifecycle that involves gathering information about the target organization or system, such as its network topology, IP addresses, open ports, services, vulnerabilities, etc. Reconnaissance helps to identify potential entry points and weaknesses that can be exploited by the attackers in later phases of the attack. The other options are not the first activity associated with a successful cyber attack, but rather follow after reconnaissance in the cyber attack lifecycle, such as exploitation (A), maintaining a presence C, or creating attack tools (D).
NEW QUESTION # 58
What is the MAIN objective of an intrusion detection system (IDS) policy?
- A. To define the assets covered by intrusion detection systems (IDSs)
- B. To define the response time required of security personnel when an intrusion is detected
- C. To establish the actions to be taken by security personnel in the event an intruder is detected
- D. To establish the criteria and reporting requirements associated with intrusion events
Answer: D
Explanation:
The main objective of an intrusion detection system (IDS) policy is to establish the criteria for what constitutes an intrusion event and the reporting requirements once such an event is detected. This includes defining what activities are considered anomalies, ensuring that security breaches are identified, and specifying how and to whom these incidents should be reported. The policy sets the foundation for how intrusions are detected, assessed, and managed within an organization's network infrastructure1.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following is a limitation of intrusion detection systems (IDS)?
- A. Weak passwords for the administration console
- B. Application-level vulnerabilities
- C. Limited evidence on intrusive activity
- D. Lack of Interface with system tools
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A limitation of intrusion detection systems (IDS) is that they cannot detect application-level vulnerabilities. An IDS is a tool that monitors network traffic or system activity and alerts on any suspicious or malicious events.
However, an IDS cannot analyze the logic or functionality of applications and identify vulnerabilities such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, or broken authentication.
NEW QUESTION # 60
Which of the following is the GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Sen/ices to evaluate a cloud service provider?
- A. Inability to issue SOC 2 or SOC 3 reports
- B. Omission of confidentiality in the criteria
- C. Incompatibility with cloud service business model
- D. Lack of specificity m the principles
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider is the lack of specificity in the principles. This is because the AICPA/CICA Trust Services are a set of principles and criteria that provide guidance for evaluating and reporting on controls over information systems and services. However, the principles and criteria are very broad and generic, and do not address the specific risks and challenges that are associated with cloud services, such as data sovereignty, multi-tenancy, portability, etc. The other options are not drawbacks when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, but rather different aspects or benefits of using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, such as compatibility (A), confidentiality C, or reporting (D).
NEW QUESTION # 61
An organization's responsibility to protect its assets and operations, including IT infrastructure and information, is referred to as:
- A. governance, risk management, and compliance.
- B. cybersecurity goals, objectives, and mission.
- C. corporate risk management and assurance strategy.
- D. organizational cybersecurity policies and procedures.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The responsibility of an organization to protect its assets, including IT infrastructure and information, falls under the broader umbrella of governance, risk management, and compliance (GRC). Governance ensures that organizational activities, like managing IT operations, are aligned with the business's goals, risk management involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks, and compliance ensures that the organization adheres to laws, regulations, and policies.
Reference = While I can't provide direct references from the Cybersecurity Audit Manual, the concept of GRC is widely recognized in cybersecurity frameworks and best practices, such as those outlined by ISACA and other industry standards.
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following is MOST critical to guiding and managing security activities throughout an organization to ensure objectives are met?
- A. Establishing metrics to measure and monitor security performance
- B. Adopting industry security standards and frameworks
- C. Allocating a significant amount of budget to security investments
- D. Conducting annual security awareness training for all employees
Answer: A
Explanation:
The MOST critical thing to guiding and managing security activities throughout an organization to ensure objectives are met is establishing metrics to measure and monitor security performance. This is because metrics provide quantifiable and objective data that can be used to evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of security activities, as well as identify gaps and areas for improvement. Metrics also enable communication and reporting of security performance to stakeholders, such as senior management, board members, auditors, regulators, customers, etc. The other options are not as critical as establishing metrics, because they either involve spending money without knowing the return on investment (A), adopting standards without customizing them to fit the organization's context and needs (B), or conducting training without assessing its impact on behavior change (D).
NEW QUESTION # 63
Which phase typically occurs before containment of an incident?
- A. Identification
- B. Eradication
- C. Preservation
- D. Recovery
Answer: A
Explanation:
The phase that typically occurs before containment in an incident response is Identification. This phase involves detecting and determining the nature of the incident. It's crucial to correctly identify an incident before it can be contained, as containment strategies may vary depending on the type of incident.
NEW QUESTION # 64
When passwords are tied into key generation, the strength of the encryption algorithm is:
- A. increased.
- B. maintained.
- C. voided.
- D. diminished.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When passwords are used in key generation, they serve as a component of the encryption process. The strength of the encryption algorithm itself is not inherently affected by the use of passwords for key generation. Instead, the security of the encryption relies on the strength and complexity of the password, the key generation process, and the encryption algorithm's resilience to attacks. A strong, complex password can contribute to a robust encryption key, thereby maintaining the intended strength of the encryption algorithm.
NEW QUESTION # 65
Which of the following includes step-by-step directions for accomplishing a specific task?
- A. Guidelines
- B. Procedures
- C. Baselines
- D. Policies
Answer: B
Explanation:
Procedures are detailed, step-by-step instructions that describe exactly how to perform a particular task or process. They are designed to ensure consistency and efficiency in the execution of tasks, and they are essential in maintaining the reliability of an organization's operations, especially in the context of cybersecurity.
NEW QUESTION # 66
Which of the following describes specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy?
- A. Frameworks
- B. Guidelines
- C. Standards
- D. Basedine
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy are known as standards. This is because standards define the minimum level of performance or behavior that is expected from an organization or its employees in order to achieve a policy objective or requirement. Standards also provide clear and measurable criteria for auditing and monitoring compliance with policies. The other options are not specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy, but rather different types of documents or tools that provide guidance or recommendations for implementing policies or controls, such as frameworks (A), guidelines (B), or baselines C.
NEW QUESTION # 67
Which control mechanism is used to detect the unauthorized modification of key configuration settings?
- A. URL filtering
- B. File integrity
- C. Whitelisting
- D. Sandboxing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The control mechanism that is used to detect the unauthorized modification of key configuration settings is file integrity. File integrity is the property of ensuring that files are not altered or corrupted by unauthorized users or processes. File integrity can be monitored by using tools that compare the current state of files with a baseline or checksum and alert on any changes.
NEW QUESTION # 68
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