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Free IAPP CIPT Test Practice Test Questions Exam Dumps
IAPP CIPT (Certified Information Privacy Technologist) Exam is a certification exam offered by the International Association of Privacy Professionals (IAPP). CIPT exam is designed to assess an individual's understanding of privacy laws, regulations, and practices related to information technology. Certified Information Privacy Technologist (CIPT) certification is designed for professionals who work in the field of information technology and are responsible for ensuring the privacy of personal information.
NEW QUESTION # 41
To meet data protection and privacy legal requirements that may require personal data to be disposed of or deleted when no longer necessary for the use it was collected, what is the best privacy-enhancing solution a privacy technologist should recommend be implemented in application design to meet this requirement?
- A. Implement automated deletion of off-site backup of personal data based on annual risk assessments.
- B. Develop application logic to validate and purge personal data according to legal hold status or retention schedule.
- C. Implement a process to delete personal data on demand and maintain records on deletion requests.
- D. Securely archive personal data not accessed or used in the last 6 months. Automate a quarterly review to delete data from archive once no longer needed.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To meet data protection and privacy legal requirements regarding the disposal or deletion of personal data when it is no longer necessary, the best privacy-enhancing solution involves integrating robust application logic. Option C suggests developing application logic that validates and purges personal data according to its legal hold status or retention schedule. This approach ensures compliance with legal mandates for data retention and deletion, minimizing the risk of retaining unnecessary personal data. References to this can be found in IAPP's CIPT materials, specifically in the sections discussing data lifecycle management and legal compliance requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 42
What is the goal of privacy enhancing technologies (PETS) like multiparty computation and differential privacy?
- A. To protect sensitive data while maintaining its utility.
- B. To facilitate audits of third party vendors.
- C. To protect the security perimeter and the data items themselves.
- D. To standardize privacy activities across organizational groups.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Privacy Enhancing Technologies (PETs) such as multiparty computation and differential privacy are designed to protect sensitive data while still allowing it to be useful for analysis and other purposes. Multiparty computation enables parties to jointly compute a function over their inputs while keeping those inputs private.
Differential privacy provides a way to maximize the accuracy of queries from statistical databases while minimizing the chances of identifying its entries. This dual focus on protecting data privacy while maintaining data utility is the primary goal of these technologies.
IAPP Certification Textbooks, Chapter on PETs, and their Applications in Privacy Management.
NEW QUESTION # 43
What logs should an application server retain in order to prevent phishing attacks while minimizing data retention?
- A. Limited-retention logs including the links clicked in messages, the identity of parties sending and receiving them, as well as metadata.
- B. Limited-retention, de-identified logs including the links clicked in messages as well as metadata.
- C. Limited-retention, de-identified logs including only metadata.
- D. Limited-retention logs including the identity of parties sending and receiving messages as well as metadata.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 44
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next questions:
Your company is launching a new track and trace health app during the outbreak of a virus pandemic in the US. The developers claim the app is based on privacy by design because personal data collected was considered to ensure only necessary data is captured, users are presented with a privacy notice, and they are asked to give consent before data is shared. Users can update their consent after logging into an account, through a dedicated privacy and consent hub. This is accessible through the 'Settings' icon from any app page, then clicking 'My Preferences', and selecting 'Information Sharing and Consent' where the following choices are displayed:
* "I consent to receive notifications and infection alerts";
* "I consent to receive information on additional features or services, and new products";
* "I consent to sharing only my risk result and location information, for exposure and contact tracing purposes";
* "I consent to share my data for medical research purposes"; and
* "I consent to share my data with healthcare providers affiliated to the company".
For each choice, an ON* or OFF tab is available The default setting is ON for all Users purchase a virus screening service for USS29 99 for themselves or others using the app The virus screening service works as follows:
* Step 1 A photo of the user's face is taken.
* Step 2 The user measures their temperature and adds the reading in the app
* Step 3 The user is asked to read sentences so that a voice analysis can detect symptoms
* Step 4 The user is asked to answer questions on known symptoms
* Step 5 The user can input information on family members (name date of birth, citizenship, home address, phone number, email and relationship).) The results are displayed as one of the following risk status "Low. "Medium" or "High" if the user is deemed at "Medium " or "High" risk an alert may be sent to other users and the user is Invited to seek a medical consultation and diagnostic from a healthcare provider.
A user's risk status also feeds a world map for contact tracing purposes, where users are able to check if they have been or are in dose proximity of an infected person If a user has come in contact with another individual classified as "medium' or 'high' risk an instant notification also alerts the user of this. The app collects location trails of every user to monitor locations visited by an infected individual Location is collected using the phone's GPS functionary, whether the app is in use or not however, the exact location of the user is "blurred' for privacy reasons Users can only see on the map circles What is likely to be the biggest privacy concern with the current 'Information Sharing and Consent' page?
- A. The navigation needed in the app to get to the consent page.
- B. The option to consent to receive potential marketing information.
- C. The ON or OFF default setting for each item.
- D. The information sharing with healthcare providers affiliated with the company.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Having default settings for information sharing and consent can be problematic because it may not accurately reflect a user's preferences. Users may not be aware of these default settings or may not understand their implications. This could result in personal information being shared without the user's explicit consent.
NEW QUESTION # 45
Granting data subjects the right to have data corrected, amended, or deleted describes?
- A. Individual participation.
- B. Accountability.
- C. A security safeguard.
- D. Use limitation.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 46
A valid argument against data minimization is that it?
- A. Decreases the speed of data transfers.
- B. Increases the chance that someone can be identified from data.
- C. Can have an adverse effect on data quality.
- D. Can limit business opportunities.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A valid argument against data minimization is that it Can limit business opportunities. Data minimization is the principle that data collected should be limited to what is necessary for the purposes for which it is processed. While this principle supports privacy and data protection, it can also restrict the amount of data available to businesses for analysis and innovation, potentially limiting their ability to develop new products, improve services, or identify new market opportunities.
Reference:
GDPR, Article 5(1)(c): Data minimization
NEW QUESTION # 47
What must be done to destroy data stored on "write once read many" (WORM) media?
- A. The media must be reformatted.
- B. The erase function must be used to remove all data.
- C. The data must be made inaccessible by encryption.
- D. The media must be physically destroyed.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 48
When writing security policies, the most important consideration is to?
- A. Require all employees to read and acknowledge their understanding.
- B. Ensure they are based on the organization's risk profile.
- C. Ensure they cover enough details for common situations.
- D. Follow industry best practices.
Answer: B
Explanation:
the most important consideration when writing security policies is to ensure they are based on the organization's risk profile. This means that the policies should be tailored to address the specific risks faced by the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Ivan is a nurse for a home healthcare service provider in the US. The company has implemented a mobile application which Ivan uses to record a patient's vital statistics and access a patient's health care records during home visits. During one visitj^van is unable to access the health care application to record the patient's vitals. He instead records the information on his mobile phone's note-taking application to enter the data in the health care application the next time it is accessible. What would be the best course of action by the IT department to ensure the data is protected on his device?
- A. Implement Mobile Device Management (MDM) to enforce company security policies and configuration settings.
- B. Adopt mobile platform standards to ensure that only mobile devices that support encryption capabilities are used.
- C. Provide all healthcare employees with mandatory annual security awareness training with a focus on the health information protection.
- D. Complete a SWOT analysis exercise on the mobile application to identify what caused the application to be inaccessible and remediate any issues.
Answer: A
Explanation:
the best course of action by the IT department to ensure the data is protected on Ivan's device is to implement Mobile Device Management (MDM) to enforce company security policies and configuration settings.
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which is NOT a suitable action to apply to data when the retention period ends?
- A. Retagging.
- B. Deletion.
- C. De-identification.
- D. Aggregation.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 51
of the following best describes a network threat model and Its uses?
- A. It Is used in software development to detect programming errors. .
- B. It is a risk-based model used to calculate the probabilities of risks identified during vulnerability tests.
- C. It helps assess the probability, the potential harm, and the priority of attacks to help minimize or eradicate the threats.
- D. It combines the results of vulnerability and penetration tests to provide useful insights into the network's overall threat and security posture.
Answer: C
Explanation:
a network threat model helps assess the probability, the potential harm, and the priority of attacks to help minimize or eradicate the threats.
NEW QUESTION # 52
A manufacturer has selected a vendor to develop a cloud-based worker health and safety application. Prior to signing a contract, the manufacturer's privacy technologist has been engaged to advise management on the operational effectiveness of the vendor's privacy controls. Which document would most likely contain an independent view of the operating effectiveness of the vendor's privacy controls?
- A. A System and Organization Controls (SOC) 2 Type 2 Report.
- B. An external penetration test attestation report.
- C. The privacy controls addendum of the vendor's contract.
- D. The vendor's annual internal audit report.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In CIPT's coverage of vendor risk management and independent assurance mechanisms, a SOC 2 Type 2 report is identified as the standard, recognized method for gaining independent, third-party assurance about the design and operating effectiveness of a service provider's controls over time.
SOC 2 Type 2 reports:
* Are conducted by accredited external auditors.
* Cover the operational effectiveness of controls over a defined period (typically 6-12 months).
* Evaluate controls aligned with the AICPA Trust Services Criteria, which include:
* Security
* Availability
* Processing integrity
* Confidentiality
* Privacy
* Provide the level of assurance needed for assessing whether a vendor can reliably protect personal data.
This aligns with the CIPT curriculum sections regarding:
* Vendor due diligence and assurance artifacts
* Privacy governance and accountability
* Third-party audit frameworks and control validation
Why the other options do not satisfy CIPT's definition of independent operational assurance:
* A. Internal audit report: Not independent - created by the organization itself.
* B. External penetration test: Only tests security vulnerabilities; does not assess privacy or ongoing operational control effectiveness.
* C. Contract addendum: Describes expectations, but not evidence of actual operating effectiveness.
Thus, the only document providing independent verification of operational effectiveness is:
# SOC 2 Type 2 (Option D)
NEW QUESTION # 53
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next questions:
Your company is launching a new track and trace health app during the outbreak of a virus pandemic in the US. The developers claim the app is based on privacy by design because personal data collected was considered to ensure only necessary data is captured, users are presented with a privacy notice, and they are asked to give consent before data is shared. Users can update their consent after logging into an account, through a dedicated privacy and consent hub. This is accessible through the 'Settings' icon from any app page, then clicking 'My Preferences', and selecting 'Information Sharing and Consent' where the following choices are displayed:
* "I consent to receive notifications and infection alerts";
* "I consent to receive information on additional features or services, and new products";
* "I consent to sharing only my risk result and location information, for exposure and contact tracing purposes";
* "I consent to share my data for medical research purposes"; and
* "I consent to share my data with healthcare providers affiliated to the company".
For each choice, an ON* or OFF tab is available The default setting is ON for all Users purchase a virus screening service for USS29 99 for themselves or others using the app The virus screening service works as follows:
* Step 1 A photo of the user's face is taken.
* Step 2 The user measures their temperature and adds the reading in the app
* Step 3 The user is asked to read sentences so that a voice analysis can detect symptoms
* Step 4 The user is asked to answer questions on known symptoms
* Step 5 The user can input information on family members (name date of birth, citizenship, home address, phone number, email and relationship).) The results are displayed as one of the following risk status "Low. "Medium" or "High" if the user is deemed at "Medium " or "High" risk an alert may be sent to other users and the user is Invited to seek a medical consultation and diagnostic from a healthcare provider.
A user's risk status also feeds a world map for contact tracing purposes, where users are able to check if they have been or are in dose proximity of an infected person If a user has come in contact with another individual classified as "medium' or 'high' risk an instant notification also alerts the user of this. The app collects location trails of every user to monitor locations visited by an infected individual Location is collected using the phone's GPS functionary, whether the app is in use or not however, the exact location of the user is
"blurred' for privacy reasons Users can only see on the map circles
Which technology is best suited for the contact tracing feature of the app1?
- A. Deep learning
- B. Near Field Communication (NFC)
- C. Radio-Frequency Identification (RFID)
- D. Bluetooth
Answer: D
Explanation:
Bluetooth technology is best suited for the contact tracing feature of the app. Bluetooth allows for proximity detection, which is essential for determining if a user has been in close contact with an infected person. It can operate effectively within the range needed for contact tracing without the significant battery drain associated with GPS. This method aligns with privacy principles by providing proximity data without constantly tracking the exact location of users. References to this can be found in the IAPP's CIPT materials discussing privacy- preserving technologies and their applications in contact tracing.
NEW QUESTION # 54
During a transport layer security (TLS) session, what happens immediately after the web browser creates a random PreMasterSecret?
- A. The web browser encrypts the PremasterSecret with the server's public key.
- B. The server decrypts the PremasterSecret.
- C. The server and client use the same algorithm to convert the PremasterSecret into an encryption key.
- D. The web browser opens a TLS connection to the PremasterSecret.
Answer: A
Explanation:
* TLS Handshake Process: During a TLS handshake, various steps occur to establish a secure session between a client (e.g., web browser) and a server.
* ClientHello: The process begins with the client sending a "ClientHello" message, which includes supported cipher suites and the client's random value.
* ServerHello: The server responds with a "ServerHello" message, which includes the selected cipher suite and the server's random value.
* Server Certificate: The server sends its digital certificate to the client to authenticate its identity.
* Client Key Exchange: After verifying the server's certificate, the client generates a random
"PreMasterSecret."
* Encryption with Public Key: The client encrypts the "PreMasterSecret" with the server's public key obtained from the server's certificate. This step ensures that only the server can decrypt the
"PreMasterSecret" since it possesses the corresponding private key.
* Decryption by Server: The server decrypts the received "PreMasterSecret" using its private key.
* Generation of Session Keys: Both the client and the server independently generate session keys using the decrypted "PreMasterSecret," along with the client and server random values.
References:
"Transport Layer Security (TLS) - Working of TLS", GeeksforGeeks, https://www.geeksforgeeks.org
/transport-layer-security-tls-working-of-tls/
"How does SSL/TLS work?", Cloudflare, https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/ssl/how-does-ssl-work/
NEW QUESTION # 55
SCENARIO
WebTracker Limited is a cloud-based online marketing service located in London. Last year, WebTracker migrated its IT infrastructure to the cloud provider AmaZure, which provides SQL Databases and Artificial Intelligence services to WebTracker. The roles and responsibilities between the two companies have been formalized in a standard contract, which includes allocating the role of data controller to WebTracker.
The CEO of WebTracker, Mr. Bond, would like to assess the effectiveness of AmaZure's privacy controls, and he recently decided to hire you as an independent auditor. The scope of the engagement is limited only to the marketing services provided by WebTracker, you will not be evaluating any internal data processing activity, such as HR or Payroll.
This ad-hoc audit was triggered due to a future partnership between WebTracker and SmartHome - a partnership that will not require any data sharing. SmartHome is based in the USA, and most recently has dedicated substantial resources to developing smart refrigerators that can suggest the recommended daily calorie intake based on DNA information. This and other personal data is collected by WebTracker.
To get an idea of the scope of work involved, you have decided to start reviewing the company's documentation and interviewing key staff to understand potential privacy risks.
The results of this initial work include the following notes:
There are several typos in the current privacy notice of WebTracker, and you were not able to find the privacy notice for SmartHome.
You were unable to identify all the sub-processors working for SmartHome. No subcontractor is indicated in the cloud agreement with AmaZure, which is responsible for the support and maintenance of the cloud infrastructure.
There are data flows representing personal data being collected from the internal employees of WebTracker, including an interface from the HR system.
Part of the DNA data collected by WebTracker was from employees, as this was a prototype approved by the CEO of WebTracker.
All the WebTracker and SmartHome customers are based in USA and Canada.
Based on the initial assessment and review of the available data flows, which of the following would be the most important privacy risk you should investigate first?
- A. Confirm whether the data transfer from London to the USA has been fully approved by AmaZure and the appropriate institutions in the USA and the European Union.
- B. Evaluate and review the basis for processing employees' personal data in the context of the prototype created by WebTracker and approved by the CEO.
- C. Verify that WebTracker's HR and Payroll systems implement the current privacy notice (after the typos are fixed).
- D. Review the list of subcontractors employed by AmaZure and ensure these are included in the formal agreement with WebTracker.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Transferring personal data across borders can pose significant privacy risks if not done in compliance with applicable data protection laws and regulations. It is important for WebTracker to confirm that this data transfer has been fully approved by all relevant parties to ensure that it is being done in a compliant manner.
NEW QUESTION # 56
SCENARIO
Kyle is a new security compliance manager who will be responsible for coordinating and executing controls to ensure compliance with the company's information security policy and industry standards. Kyle is also new to the company, where collaboration is a core value. On his first day of new-hire orientation, Kyle's schedule included participating in meetings and observing work in the IT and compliance departments.
Kyle spent the morning in the IT department, where the CIO welcomed him and explained that her department was responsible for IT governance. The CIO and Kyle engaged in a conversation about the importance of identifying meaningful IT governance metrics. Following their conversation, the CIO introduced Kyle to Ted and Barney. Ted is implementing a plan to encrypt data at the transportation level of the organization's wireless network. Kyle would need to get up to speed on the project and suggest ways to monitor effectiveness once the implementation was complete. Barney explained that his short-term goals are to establish rules governing where data can be placed and to minimize the use of offline data storage.
Kyle spent the afternoon with Jill, a compliance specialist, and learned that she was exploring an initiative for a compliance program to follow self-regulatory privacy principles. Thanks to a recent internship, Kyle had some experience in this area and knew where Jill could find some support. Jill also shared results of the company's privacy risk assessment, noting that the secondary use of personal information was considered a high risk.
By the end of the day, Kyle was very excited about his new job and his new company. In fact, he learned about an open position for someone with strong qualifications and experience with access privileges, project standards board approval processes, and application-level obligations, and couldn't wait to recommend his friend Ben who would be perfect for the job.
Which data practice is Barney most likely focused on improving?
- A. Retention.
- B. Deletion
- C. Sharing
- D. Inventory.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 57
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