View All 220-1201 Actual Exam Questions Answers and Explanations for Free Feb-2026 [Q120-Q139]

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View All 220-1201 Actual Exam Questions Answers and Explanations for Free Feb-2026

The Most In-Demand CompTIA 220-1201 Pass Guaranteed Quiz 

NEW QUESTION # 120
Which of the following tools is best to track where an Ethernet cable is patched?

  • A. Toner probe
  • B. Cable stripper
  • C. Crimper
  • D. Punchdown tool

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
Atoner probe(also known as a tone generator and probe) is the best tool fortracing and identifying cablesin a patch panel or wall jack. The tone generator sends a signal through the wire, and the probe helps locate the cable by detecting the tone.
* Option A (Crimper):Used to attach connectors (e.g., RJ-45), not for tracing cables.
* Option B (Punchdown tool):Used to terminate cables into patch panels or keystone jacks.
* Option C (Cable stripper):Used to remove insulation, not to trace cables.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
* Objective 5.1: Identify basic cable types, their connectors, and their features.


NEW QUESTION # 121
A technician is troubleshooting a computer that has random BSOD alerts and intermittently freezes during normal use. Performance degrades as the day goes on. No new software or hardware changes have been implemented. Freezing occurs under performance-intensive operations. Which of the following hardware components is most likely at fault?

  • A. RAM module
  • B. HDD
  • C. TPM
  • D. Video card

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:
Random BSODs (Blue Screen of Death), intermittent freezing, and degraded performance under load are common symptoms of failing or faulty RAM (Random Access Memory). Here's the reasoning:
RAM Module (Correct Answer):
Faulty or failing RAM can cause random BSODs due to memory errors when the system attempts to read or write to corrupted memory locations.
Intermittent freezing, especially under performance-intensive operations, can occur because the CPU relies heavily on RAM for active processing tasks.
Over time, heat generated during usage can exacerbate RAM instability, leading to progressively worse performance throughout the day.
Solution: The technician should run a memory diagnostic tool, such as Windows Memory Diagnostic or MemTest86, to confirm if the RAM is at fault.
Incorrect Options:
A: Video Card: A faulty video card can cause graphical glitches, screen artifacts, or crashes, but it is unlikely to cause system-wide performance degradation and random freezing under normal operations unless the issue is specific to GPU-intensive tasks (e.g., gaming or video rendering).
B: HDD: A failing hard drive can cause system slowdowns and freezing, but it typically produces other symptoms such as read/write errors, boot failures, or clicking sounds. HDD issues do not usually cause BSODs unless critical system files are corrupted.
D: TPM (Trusted Platform Module): A TPM is a hardware-based security module used for encryption and secure authentication. It does not affect performance or cause BSODs or freezing under normal operation.
Key Takeaway:
The symptoms described (random BSODs, intermittent freezing, and degraded performance under load) are most likely caused by faulty or failing RAM. Memory diagnostic tools should be used to confirm the issue.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1201), Domain 5.2 - Troubleshooting problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPUs, and power.


NEW QUESTION # 122
Which of the following is an advantage of using VDI?

  • A. Authentication is not required on a domain.
  • B. A virus is automatically contained locally.
  • C. Licensing costs are minimized.
  • D. Less manual configuration is needed for each workstation.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)hosts desktop environments on centralized servers. Thisallowsrapid deployment and consistent configurationacross multiple users, minimizing manual setup and easing IT management.
* Option A:VDI still uses standard authentication methods.
* Option B:Licensing can actually be more expensive due to virtualization software and backend servers.
* Option D:VDI centralizes the desktop environment - viruses would affect the virtual session, not be
"contained locally."
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
* Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.


NEW QUESTION # 123
A user returns from a trip and discovers a computer that is connected to the LAN times out intermittently Upon investigation, a technician finds the RJ45 pin is not property terminated Which of the following networking tools is most appropriate to fix the issue?

  • A. Punchdown
  • B. Crimper
  • C. Cable tester
  • D. Toner probe

Answer: B

Explanation:
D: Crimper:
A crimper is used to terminate an RJ45 cable properly by attaching the connector to the twisted-pair wires.
If the termination is not done correctly, the connection will be intermittent or fail entirely.
Incorrect Options:
A: Toner probe: Used to locate cables or trace their path, not for terminating RJ45 connectors.
B: Cable tester: Useful for testing connectivity but does not fix termination issues.
C: Punchdown: Used to connect wires to a patch panel or keystone jack, not for RJ45 connectors.
Key Takeaway: A crimper is the proper tool for fixing an improperly terminated RJ45 connection.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1201), Domain 2.8 - Using appropriate tools for network troubleshooting.


NEW QUESTION # 124
A user experiences a random BSOD while using a computer, but the operating system recovers as expected Which of the following symptoms would indicate the issue is related to RAM?

  • A. Continuous reboots
  • B. Wrong BIOS configurations
  • C. Distended capacitors
  • D. POST code beeps

Answer: D

Explanation:
D:POST Code Beeps:
During the Power-On Self-Test (POST), the BIOS performs checks on system hardware, including RAM. If the RAM is faulty, POST may produce a series of beep codes indicating memory issues.
These beep codes are often the first sign of RAM-related problems, especially if the BSOD occurs randomly.
Incorrect Options:
A: Wrong BIOS configurations: Incorrect BIOS settings may cause boot errors, but they are less likely to cause random BSODs.
B: Continuous reboots: Continuous reboots could result from multiple hardware or software issues but do not specifically point to RAM.
C: Distended capacitors: Faulty capacitors typically affect the motherboard, not the RAM.
Key Takeaway: POST beep codes are a common diagnostic tool for identifying RAM-related issues.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1201), Domain 5.2 - Troubleshooting RAM and motherboard issues.


NEW QUESTION # 125
A technician is setting up a locally hosted environment for internal developers who need concurrent access to a wide array of test OSs. Which of the following would best fulfill this requirement?

  • A. Hypervisor
  • B. Multiboot server computer
  • C. SaaS platform
  • D. Sandbox

Answer: A

Explanation:
A hypervisor allows multiple operating systems to run simultaneously on a single physical host, making it the ideal solution for providing concurrent access to different test environments. Developers can use virtual machines (VMs) for testing and development.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 - Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts:
"A hypervisor is software that enables multiple operating systems to run on a single host as virtual machines.
This is commonly used in development and testing environments for flexibility and isolation." Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Virtualization CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7


NEW QUESTION # 126
A customer recently lost data due to several unexpected shutdowns. Data integrity is important to the customer. Which of the following features should the technician choose to prevent data loss?

  • A. High-efficiency power supply
  • B. Redundant power supply
  • C. Modular power supply
  • D. Uninterruptible power supply

Answer: D

Explanation:
An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) protects systems against power outages by providing temporary backup power, giving users time to save data and safely shut down.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 - Power protection:
"A UPS supplies backup power to prevent data loss and hardware damage during outages or surges, ensuring system integrity." Verified Source:
* CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Power Protection
* CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3


NEW QUESTION # 127
A customer reports that a text-only document prints with unrecognizable characters. The print preview correctly displays the document. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?

  • A. Corrupted document file
  • B. Incorrect driver
  • C. Outdated firmware
  • D. Bad toner cartridge

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 128
A technician observes slow startup times on a laptop. Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?

  • A. NIC
  • B. BIOS
  • C. RAM
  • D. HDD

Answer: D

Explanation:
A hard disk drive (HDD), especially if it's older or nearly full, is the most common cause of slow startup times in laptops. HDDs are much slower than SSDs and can significantly bottleneck the boot process.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 - Troubleshoot common hardware problems:
"A slow startup or sluggish system performance is commonly due to a failing or fragmented hard disk drive (HDD). Replacing with an SSD can greatly improve boot times and overall system responsiveness." Verified Source:
* CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting PC Hardware
* CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1


NEW QUESTION # 129
Which of the following should a company use to implement automatic time synchronization?

  • A. NTP
  • B. DHCP
  • C. AAA
  • D. UTM

Answer: A

Explanation:
NTP (Network Time Protocol) is specifically designed to synchronize the clocks of networked computers and devices automatically.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.6 - Network services and protocols:
"NTP is used to automatically synchronize system clocks on network devices, ensuring all systems have accurate time." Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Protocols CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.6


NEW QUESTION # 130
Which of the following best represents the purpose of NFC?

  • A. Wireless connections between multiple devices at once
  • B. Short-distance wireless connections between two devices
  • C. Direct connection of two computers for file sharing
  • D. Wired connections between several devices

Answer: B

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
NFC (Near-Field Communication) is a subset of RFID technology designed for very short-range wireless communication, typically within a few centimeters. It is primarily used for contactless transactions, like mobile payments, and can also support peer-to-peer data exchanges. NFC operates at 13.56 MHz and enables devices to communicate when placed near each other.
#Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide" by Quentin Docter - Chapter 7, "Wireless and SOHO Networks", page 400.


NEW QUESTION # 131
Which of the following are radio frequency connections? (Select two.)

  • A. Satellite
  • B. Cable
  • C. DSL
  • D. Cellular
  • E. Ethernet
  • F. Fiber

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
CompTIA A+ explains that radio frequency (RF) connections use electromagnetic waves instead of copper or optical cabling. Satellite uses RF signals transmitted to and from orbiting satellites, while cellular networks (3G/4G/5G) use RF communications via cell towers.
Cable uses coaxial wired infrastructure, DSL uses telephone lines, Ethernet is twisted-pair copper, and fiber uses light instead of RF.
Satellite and cellular are the only technologies in the list that rely on wireless radio frequency transmission as their medium. The A+ networking domain emphasizes understanding the physical media of WAN technologies and distinguishing wired vs. wireless connectivity, making B and D the correct answers.


NEW QUESTION # 132
A multifunction printer in a small office recently had issues with scan-to-email functionality. The manufacturer has an update ready to fix the printer issues. Which of the following would a technician most likely deploy to remediate the issue?

  • A. HSM
  • B. OS update
  • C. Firmware
  • D. Driver

Answer: C

Explanation:
Firmware is the embedded software on a device such as a printer. Manufacturers often release firmware updates to resolve hardware-specific functionality issues, such as scan-to-email or security vulnerabilities.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 - Printer installation and maintenance:
"Firmware updates provide bug fixes and add new features for multifunction printers. Apply firmware updates to resolve device-specific issues." Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Printer Maintenance CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4


NEW QUESTION # 133
Which of the following statements best summarize managed vs unmanaged switches? (Select two).

  • A. Managed switches consume less power
  • B. Managed switches have more features
  • C. Unmanaged switches are generally more expensive
  • D. Unmanaged switches have more security capabilities
  • E. Managed switches require no configuration
  • F. Unmanaged switches start working as soon as they are plugged in to the network

Answer: B,F

Explanation:
Unmanaged switches require no configuration they simply need to be plugged in and start working immediately, making them ideal for simple network setups.
Managed switches provide advanced features such as VLANs, SNMP monitoring, port security, and traffic management, but require configuration.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 - Compare and contrast common networking hardware:
"Unmanaged switches operate out of the box with no configuration and are designed for simple connectivity.
Managed switches allow for configuration, monitoring, and management of network traffic and security." Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Hardware CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2


NEW QUESTION # 134
After troubleshooting a computer's connectivity, the network team determines there is a port-mapping issue.
After plugging the patch cable into a different port, the issue persists. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should a technician take next to resolve the issue?

  • A. Verify the length of the patch cable meets current standards.
  • B. Test the patch cable from the computer to the network closet.
  • C. Replace the patch cable from the device to the wall.
  • D. Convert the patch cable to a crossover cable.

Answer: B

Explanation:
When port issues persist after moving to a different switch port, the next logical troubleshooting step is to test the patch cable. Faulty or damaged cables are a common cause of network connectivity problems. Using a cable tester between the computer and the network closet verifies the integrity of the cable and rules out a physical layer issue.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.2 - Troubleshoot wired and wireless networks:
"If a device continues to experience connectivity issues after switching ports, test the cabling with a cable tester to check for continuity, shorts, or pinout issues before replacing hardware." Verified Source:
* CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting Network Connectivity
* CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.2


NEW QUESTION # 135
A technician receives a notification after a network outage that indicates the printer is not reachable. Which of the following printer settings should the technician implement to prevent this issue in the future?

  • A. Static IP
  • B. DHCP
  • C. Gateway
  • D. APIPA

Answer: A

Explanation:
Assigning a static IP to network printers ensures the printer's address does not change after outages or DHCP lease expirations, preventing connectivity issues.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 - Printer network configuration:
"Printers should use static IPs to ensure they remain reachable and do not change addresses after network events." Verified Source:
* CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Printer Networking
* CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4


NEW QUESTION # 136
Which of the following can be used to logically segment networks?

  • A. NIC
  • B. DSL
  • C. MAC
  • D. VLAN

Answer: D

Explanation:
A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is a network technology used to logically segment a physical network into multiple distinct broadcast domains, even if they share the same hardware.
From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 - Compare and contrast common networking hardware:
"VLANs allow network administrators to segment a network logically, isolating broadcast traffic and improving security and management, regardless of the physical network layout." Other options explained:
MAC (Media Access Control) is a hardware address, not a segmentation method.
NIC (Network Interface Card) is network hardware, not for logical segmentation.
DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) is an internet connection type.
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Concepts CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2


NEW QUESTION # 137
Which of the following allows for a beam of light to transmit data through a flexible cable?

  • A. Coaxial
  • B. Thunderbolt
  • C. Single-mode fiber
  • D. HDMI

Answer: C

Explanation:
Single-mode fiber (as well as multi-mode fiber) transmits data using beams of light, allowing for high-speed data transfer over flexible fiber-optic cables.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.1 - Networking media:
"Fiber optic cables transmit data using light. Single-mode fiber is used for long-distance, high-speed communication." Verified Source:
* CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Media
* CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.1


NEW QUESTION # 138
A user reports that the print quality of their desk printer is poor. A technician replaces the ink cartridge, but this does not resolve the issue. Which of the following should the technician do next?

  • A. Clean the printheads
  • B. Change the ribbon
  • C. Replace the pickup rollers
  • D. Switch the paper type

Answer: A

Explanation:
If print quality remains poor after replacing the ink cartridge, the next step is to clean the printheads.
Printheads can become clogged with dried ink, especially in inkjet printers, causing streaks or faded output.
From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 - Troubleshoot printing problems:
"Poor print quality after replacing cartridges is commonly caused by clogged or dirty printheads. Use the printer's cleaning cycle or manually clean the printheads as needed." Verified Source:
* CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting
* CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3


NEW QUESTION # 139
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